ASCP International (ASCPi) Practice Exam

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• Which test result best helps differentiate Vibrio vulnificus from other enteric pathogens using susceptibility testing?
• Which pair correctly identifies a plasma cell immunophenotype?
• Glycophorin A and glycophorin B possess antigen sites for which blood group system?
• What is the purpose of performing an elution in direct antiglobulin testing?
• Which gene is commonly targeted in MRSA detection by PCR?
• The Hybrid Capture II test detects which groups?
• In hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria occurs when
• Which finding supports obstructive jaundice over hepatocellular injury?
• Which HBV antigen is most closely associated with transmissibility?
• Which of the following is true about transudates?
• SsU antibodies appear in the presence of which deletion sequence?
• Which of the following can result in decreased ESR?
• In terms of LAP score, which statement is true for CML?
• Which can be found in the saliva of an individual with Lewis phenotype Le (a+b-)?
• Which parasite is known for autoinfection?
• Which of the following statements best describes CML LAP score?
• Which of the following blood groups deteriorate on storage?
• The yeast form of which dimorphic fungus appears as oval or elongated cigar-shaped yeast cells?
• Gram-positive, aerobic, catalase positive, non motile sporeforming bacilli. Demonstrates string of pearls colonies on penicillin medium
• Results for electrolytes, sodium is low. All other electrolytes are normal. What to do?
• Which of the following CSF glucose ranges is considered normal?
• What is a common error source in PCR assays?
• Which organism requires an agar medium overlay with long-chain fatty acids for cultivation?
• In AML3, which cytogenetic abnormality is observed?
• Rheumatoid factors are immunoglobulins with specificity for allotypic determinants located on the
• Which of the following is NOT a cause of hyponatremia?
• In a red urine specimen that tests positive for blood but shows no red blood cells on microscopy, what is the most likely cause of the abnormal color if ammonium sulfate precipitation leaves the supernatant red?
• Order of occurrence of serological markers in hepatitis A
• Which type of meningitis is typically associated with a normal CSF glucose and a lymphocytic predominance?
• Which organism grows in Granada medium and carrot broth?
• Theophylline belongs to which drug class?
• In hereditary angioedema, decreased activity of which inhibitor is observed?
• In this ABO typing scenario, at what temperature should serum typing be performed to resolve discrepancies?
• First step in agglutination that is rapid and reversible?
• What is considered the best single screening test for pheochromocytoma?
• Laboratory characteristics of malabsorption syndrome due to pancreatic insufficiency include which finding?
• Hyperviscosity syndrome is classically associated with monoclonal disease producing which immunoglobulin class?
• Platelets must be prepared within how many hours after collection of whole blood?
• A patient who was Rh-negative develops a positive direct antiglobulin test due to anti-D. What is the most likely cause?
• In Addison's disease, which electrolyte pattern is expected?
• Alder-Reilly anomaly is characterized by which finding?
• In an AHG test, control cells show three out of eight tubes negative after adding check cells. What is the likely error?
• CSF xanthochromia is most likely caused by which substance?
• Gardnerella vaginalis is the principal organism associated with which infection?
• Which gene mutation is detected in 90-97% of patients with polycythemia vera and 50-60% of essential thrombocythemia patients?
• In syphilis serology, a nonreactive RPR with a reactive FTA-ABS most commonly indicates which stage or history?
• Which antibiotic class is intrinsically resistant in Enterococcus and should not be reported for susceptibility testing?
• Given CMV IgG titer 1:128 and CMV IgM >1:10, with Toxoplasma IgG 1:128 and Toxoplasma IgM <1:10, what is the best interpretation?
• SsU antibodies are associated with deletion in which gene?
• In a patient with elevated calcium and normal parathyroid hormone, which condition is most likely?
• Presence of cold agglutinins will have what effect on automated hematology analyzers?
• The steam autoclave method of sterilization requires which condition?
• Which organism is most strongly associated with bacterial vaginosis diagnosed by Nugent scoring?
• The electrode used for pCO2 determination is sensitive to which of the following?
• Which statement best describes a pattern consistent with a recent CMV infection when CMV IgM is positive and CMV IgG is present?
• Which ANA pattern is associated with high titers of antibodies to Sm antigen?
• Which organism is commonly associated with human bite infections?
• Which organism is described as multidrug resistant, nonmotile, nonhemolytic gram-positive bacilli that are resistant to penicillin but sensitive to vancomycin?
• Which analyte is the best indicator of hepatobiliary damage?
• Which artifact is associated with under-filled EDTA tubes in hematology testing?
• What is detected in the latex agglutination test for Staphylococcus aureus?
• What is the expected haptoglobin level in intravascular hemolysis?
• PPD skin test, after 48 hours, 15 mm zone is due to
• What is the gold standard for MRSA detection?
• In the ABO typing scenario, what should be done?
• Which tests may be ordered to assess the toxic effects of acetaminophen?
• Which specimen is appropriate for detecting rotavirus?
• What is the gold standard for detection of Cryptosporidium parvum?
• A patient develops septicemia after consuming raw oysters. The organism is oxidase positive with pink colonies on MacConkey and is susceptible to O/129. Which organism is most likely?
• In suspected primidone overdose, the serum concentration of which compound is normal, prompting testing of an additional metabolite?
• In sputum processing for mycobacteria, which statement is correct?
• In Kirby-Bauer testing, which factor directly affects diffusion of antibiotics through the agar?
• A sputum culture on egg-based medium yields smooth brown colonies after 3 weeks; which organism is most likely?
• In immunofluorescence testing for anti-dsDNA antibodies, which organism is used as the substrate?
• Among the zygomycetes, which lacks rhizoids?
• With a direct antiglobulin test showing anti-IgG positive and anti-C3d positive, which procedure is indicated?
• If an antibody screen is positive, the next test to determine the exact alloantibody is which?
• Which laboratory finding is most consistent with intravascular hemolysis?
• Which organism is identified using a bile solubility test in routine clinical microbiology?
• Which feature distinguishes Taenia saginata from Taenia solium?
• In a patient with lupus, urinalysis shows protein 3+, large blood, and red cell casts 3-5; these findings are most associated with which condition?
• Which substances enhance phagocytosis?
• TIBC measures the serum iron transporting capacity of which protein?
• Leukemoid reaction can be triggered by which of the following?
• Which statement about Strongyloides stercoralis is true?
• In an assay, a control absorbance of 1.000 and a patient absorbance of 1.099 yields which result?
• In immunoassays, the prozone effect remedy is:
• Which laboratory finding is least consistent with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?
• Which immunologic mechanism is usually involved in bronchial asthma?
• Which organism's identification utilizes the reverse CAMP test, lecithinase production, double-zone hemolysis, and characteristic gram stain morphology?
• Oligoclonal bands present on electrophoresis of concentrated CSF and concurrently tested in the serum may indicate which infection?
• Leukemoid reaction with polycythemia vera is associated with which LAP score?
• If serum sodium is decreased with normal osmolality, which measurement should be used to determine sodium?
• Pasteurella multocida lab profile: Oxidase positive; OF test (O+/F+); nonmotile; no growth on MAC.
• Dacrocytes are also seen in which of the following conditions in addition to myelofibrosis?
• In ABO/Rh typing with strong positives and zero reactivity of A1 and B cells, what should be done next?
• What could possibly cause this PBS finding? Seen in picture: agglutination of RBCs
• Which characteristic can differentiate Yersinia enterocolitica from Yersinia pestis?
• An ABO typing result shows Anti-A: 0, Anti-B: mf, A cells: +, B cell: 0. Which B phenotype is most likely?
• During microscopy, if the objective lens appears to touch the slide while focusing, what should you check first?
• The coefficient of variation for a glucose concentration range of 80-100 mg/dL is which value?
• Which technique makes use of antigens artificially coated in particles for detection of antibodies?
• Only 390 mL of blood was collected from a donor. What component can be prepared from it?
• If MCHC is very high on CBC results, what is the appropriate next step?
• Oxalic acid crystals in urine are seen after ingestion of which substance?
• A technologist notes an ICU cluster of drug-resistant gram-negative rods in sputum. Which department should the microbiology lab collaborate with to collect data?
• An anaerobic, gram-negative, tiny diplococci observed from a jaw infection is most consistent with which genus?
• A newborn tested positive for toxoplasma IgG. Which of the following can be done to confirm if the newborn is really infected?
• Which finding is expected in plasma after streptokinase therapy for myocardial infarction?
• Which of the following is NOT correct regarding specimen collection for determination of lactic acid levels?
• Which statement is a true step in platelet component production?
• Which equation correctly defines total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)?
• Which laboratory finding best characterizes hereditary angioedema?
• In direct antiglobulin testing, what does detection of C3d on red cells suggest?
• Leukemoid reaction is distinguished from CML by which laboratory score?
• Which marker rises rapidly after myocardial infarction but is relatively nonspecific?
• In urine analysis, SG 1.010 with Renal Tubular Epithelial (RTE) cells most strongly indicates which condition?
• A dacrocyte (teardrop cell) is most characteristically associated with which condition?
• A jaundiced patient with pancreatic enlargement is most likely to have an elevated level of which tumor marker?
• Which ANA pattern is most associated with anti-Sm antibodies?
• What is the primary indication for granulocyte transfusion?
• Which chromosomal translocation is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?
• Which test is used to detect IgG antibodies in a patient’s serum that react with donor red cells in vitro?
• Fresh frozen plasma stored at -65°C will have a shelf life of which option?
• Which marker appears last during hepatitis A infection according to the described sequence?
• Which statement best describes the organism Bacillus anthracis as given in the material?
• The most sensitive single test for phenotypic detection of hereditary hemochromatosis reflects the percentage of sites available for carrying iron.
• Which statement best describes the relationship between burr cells and their associated conditions?
• The Hybrid Capture II test detects which of the following?
• The parameter that is expected to decrease in the early stages of iron deficiency anemia and is considered the most sensitive indicator
• The hepatitis B marker predominantly seen in the acute phase but rarely in chronic infection is:
• Which organism can also grow on CIN medium?
• Lactate dehydrogenase highest elevation is expected in which condition?
• Moth-eaten appearance of red blood cells on a smear can result from which artifact?
• Pasteurella species typically does not grow on MacConkey agar.
• Which organism is commonly found in dental plaque as an anaerobic gram-negative diplococcus?
• Which substrate is most sensitive for detecting beta-lactamase activity?
• In serologic testing, which phenomenon is caused by antibody excess and is remedied by diluting the serum?
• Which antibiotic is inappropriate to report for an E. coli isolate from a wound culture?
• Which organism is associated with cat scratch disease?
• Direct fluorescent antibody confirmation for Bacillus anthracis targets which antigen?
• Which compound can interfere with coulometric chloride assay?
• Which urine finding combination is most compatible with pyelonephritis in a young woman?
• Peripheral blood smear showing many microspherocytes, schistocytes, and spherocytes is most typical of which condition?
• A post-vasectomy semen specimen collected in a plastic container and transported within one hour should the laboratory staff next actions be?
• An oxidase-positive, gram-negative straight rod associated with gastroenteritis that yields an A/A reaction in TSI is most consistent with which organism?
• During sweat collection, which factor can cause falsely high results?
• Which statement describes a valid parameter for steam sterilization in a standard autoclave?
• Which statement best describes the interpretation when Rh typing is deemed invalid?
• Which testing approach best detects mecA-mediated oxacillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus during routine broth microdilution susceptibility testing?
• A previously type O, Rh-negative individual is now positive on the direct antiglobulin test (DAT). Which pattern would you most likely see in a sample tested for anti-D?
• Furazolidone susceptibility differentiates which two genera?
• All of the following could result in pseudohyponatremia except which?
• Which Mycobacterium species is commonly associated with tap water and is often considered a nonpathogenic contaminant?
• Inappropriate ADH secretion will manifest as
• An organism from an eye wash of a patient with a cornea infection who had been wearing contact lenses for the past 2 years. what is the most likely agent?
• Which chromosomal translocation creates a BCR/ABL1 fusion gene product associated with CML?
• What is the role of forward and reverse primers in PCR?
• Reactive monocytosis can be seen in which condition?
• What is the next step after a monoclonal gamma region is observed on serum protein electrophoresis?
• Which condition is most closely associated with granulocyte hyposegmentation?
• Which of the following statements about MALDI-TOF is NOT true?
• Osmolality is measured by detecting a change in which property?
• Amperometry is used to determine which physiologic parameter?
• In a transfusion scenario where pretransfusion testing shows IgG-coated cells, the best method to obtain compatible blood is?
• If a blood smear is dried too slowly, the red blood cells are often:
• Which serologic marker indicates active hepatitis B infection?
• Which factor can cause a false-negative ABO typing result?
• Which organism is commonly associated with human bite infections?
• In a patient with marked hyperglycemia, after insulin therapy and normalization of glucose, which potassium level is most expected?
• HTLV testing: if the initial ELISA is reactive, what is the next recommended step?
• RBCs characterized by semicircular area removed by the spleen and indent margins are called?
• After a doubtful zone of inhibition around a penicillin disk for Streptococcus pneumoniae, which test should be performed to confirm the organism?
• Anti-mitochondrial antibody is seen in what condition?
• Based on the CBC result shown, what could possibly be the cause of error? WBC: 9.21x10^9/L RBC: 4.17x10^12/L HGB: 14.9 g/dL HCT: 32.5% MCV: 77.9 fL MCH: 35.7 pg MCHC: 45.8 g/dL
• Which condition can cause hypermagnesemia?
• In iron studies, if UIBC = 185 µg/dL and Serum iron = 125 µg/dL, what is the % transferrin saturation?
• Fatty casts in urine are most commonly associated with which renal condition?
• Which result demonstrates an antibody that reacts only at the antiglobulin (AHG) phase in transfusion testing?
• Streptococcus agalactiae grows in which specialized media?
• Crenation is an artifact observed in a blood smear caused by which condition?
• What is the correct sash position of most biosafety cabinets?
• Which is the correct formula to calculate transferrin saturation?
• Prolonged coagulation results are observed in a patient with hematocrit value greater than 55%. What is the appropriate action?
• Advantage of MALDI-TOF?
• Iron levels in women with menstruation and prolonged menorrhagia are typically:
• Which temperature is used to differentiate Pseudomonas aeruginosa from Pseudomonas putida?
• What concentration is used to test high-level gentamicin resistance?
• Which statement about Capnocytophaga is correct according to the listed characteristics?
• Based on the forward typing results (Anti-A 4+, Anti-B 0), what is the predicted blood group?
• Chronic hepatitis B serologic status is determined by a pattern showing HBsAg positive, IgG anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HBc negative, and anti-HBs negative. Which status does this pattern correspond to?
• A markedly alkaline urine pH is most likely due to which artifact?
• During pregnancy, which form of estrogen predominates and may be useful in prenatal screening?
• Which blood group system does not exhibit dosage effect?
• The only gram positive, catalase negative, lactose fermenter, aerobic bacilli, that is H2S positive and shows bottle brush or pipe-cleaner growth in gelatin media?
• Which method is considered the most sensitive for diagnosing CMV infection in clinical specimens?
• A blood culture from a patient with subacute bacterial endocarditis shows no growth after the initial incubation on BAP. What should the MLS do next?
• In a transfusion scenario, pretransfusion antibody screening showed no agglutination until IgG sensitized cells added; repeat testing detected an antibody at the antiglobulin phase. What explains the original result?
• In primary hyperparathyroidism, which serum changes are expected?
• There is a distance band anodal to albumin in CSF electrophoresis. This band is not distinctly seen in the serum protein electrophoresis of the same patient. what must be done?
• The Hair Baiting Test differentiates which two Trichophyton species that produce red colonies on Sabouraud agar plates?
• N-acetylprocainamide is the major active metabolite of which drug?
• If a CSF sample for VDRL testing is delayed because the test is unavailable, what is the recommended interim handling?
• Which antibiotics are commonly considered inactive against organisms producing ESBLs and thus not chosen for susceptibility testing?
• Which practice helps prevent crenation artifacts when preparing a blood smear?
• Which of the following represents the best pair of screening cells for ABO/Rh testing?
• Which morphological description matches Zygomycetes?
• In processing sputum samples to isolate Mycobacteria, which sequence is correct?
• In pheochromocytoma, which metabolic abnormality is commonly observed?
• Which statement about LAP score in leukemoid reaction is true?
• Which organism does not require susceptibility testing to the indicated antimicrobial when isolated from a clinically significant source?
• Which mycobacterial species is commonly considered a nonpathogenic environmental contaminant and often forms brown colonies on egg-based media?
• Which term describes a parasite reinfecting the same host without leaving the body?
• Which instrument measures the light intensity emitted at a longer wavelength after the analyte absorbs light at a specific wavelength?
• The D test is used to detect which resistance mechanism?
• The H antigen is found in lowest concentration on which phenotype of red blood cells?
• In abnormal creatinine clearance, which other parameter is affected besides creatinine?
• In serology, an antigen excess leading to false-negative results is known as which phenomenon?
• PCR amplification is evident during which phase of the amplification curve?
• In a patient with meningococcemia who was started on penicillin, a blood subculture collected after 5 days shows no growth. What is the most likely explanation?
• Which markers best indicate hepatobiliary injury rather than hepatocellular injury?
• Which statement about LAP score in leukemoid reaction is true?
• Which cryoprecipitate unit has the highest AHF activity?
• Leukemoid reaction is best described as:
• A urine pH of 4.5 is most likely due to which?
• In an LDH assay, the diluted sample value is 120 IU after two successive dilutions. What should be the reported undiluted LDH value?
• Serum bilirubin testing. Which of the following is correct regarding the bilirubin levels of this patient?
• Least likely to develop heterophile antibodies to EBV?
• Susceptibility testing on a QC organism with a new media lot produced zones too large for all antibiotics. Repeating with a previously used lot yielded acceptable zones. The unacceptable zone sizes are best explained by which factor?
• In Rh typing, if AHG is positive at room temperature and at 37C with no check cells performed, the result is best described as what?
• Which class of macromolecule is most likely to be antigenic/immunogenic?
• Which of the following tests is least appropriate for diagnosing Lyme disease?
• A biologically active liver metabolite of procainamide is often measured; what is it?
• From the described cord blood scenario, which donor phenotype would be compatible for an exchange transfusion?
• Which of the following laboratory patterns is expected in a patient with hemolytic anemia?
• Which statement correctly describes adrenal Cushing's syndrome?
• On MacConkey agar, pink colonies indicate which metabolic property?
• Speckled ANA pattern is associated with which antibodies?
• Intraoperative autologous blood stored at 1-6°C should be administered within how many hours?
• Which urine finding is most consistent with pyelonephritis based on the described sample?
• Which combination of test results would most strongly support identification of Vibrio vulnificus in a clinical lab case?
• Calibration of blood gas analyzers requires what?
• A Liley graph uses absorbance at 450 nm in amniotic fluid to assess risk of fetal hemolytic disease; what does increasing absorbance indicate?
• Which Mycobacterium species can be acquired from tap water?
• MLS performed susceptibility testing for E. coli using a 100mm plate and placed 12 antibiotic discs on it. Which outcome would you expect?
• Pink colonies on MacConkey agar, citrate positive, LOA: -++, gram negative bacillus
• A patient's coagulation sample drawn from an IV line shows PT 11.5 seconds, APTT 67 seconds, TT 30 seconds. Which testing step should be performed next?
• A patient has normal creatine kinase but elevated troponin I. Which condition is most likely?
• Which result is most consistent with obstructive jaundice?
• Lyme disease is caused by which organism?
• Which analyte is usually tested 5-7 hours after a transfusion reaction?
• If a patient with malaria shows no schizonts or merozoites on the peripheral blood smear, the most likely causative species is?
• In patients with polycythemia vera, the level of erythropoietin is typically?
• Heinz bodies are removed from red blood cells through which process?
• Which analyte levels rise rapidly after myocardial infarction but are relatively nonspecific?
• Which organism best matches pink mucoid colonies on MacConkey agar with TSI A/A with gas and spot indole positivity?
• Alpha-fetoprotein is least likely to be found in which condition?
• Paget's disease is also known as which term?
• Which anticoagulant is recommended for lactic acid specimen collection?
• Increased presence of fetal fibronectin in cervicovaginal secretions from a 35 weeks' gestation indicates what?
• What is the stain used to measure or assess sperm viability?
• Which characteristic differentiates Pseudomonas aeruginosa from Pseudomonas putida?
• Which cancer is most commonly associated with alterations in the Her2/Neu gene?
• In the described blood smear with rod-shaped crystals in hemoglobin, which test is indicated?
• RPR: non reactive; FTA-ABS: reactive — what is the most likely interpretation?
• Identification of a gram-negative isolate using MALDI-TOF is based on detecting which biomolecule?
• In megaloblastic anemia, which macromolecule synthesis is impaired?
• Which organism is the causative agent of tularemia?
• A newborn positive for toxoplasma IgG. To confirm active infection, which test would be used?
• Which statement about N-acetylprocainamide is true?
• Rouleaux is undetectable at which phase?
• Expected in hyperaldosteronism
• In quantitative fecal fat testing, which step is used to quantify fat?
• Furazolidone susceptibility testing differentiates which two genera?
• Which cell type predominates in CSF during viral meningitis?
• Which step is appropriate when sodium appears low with normal electrolytes?
• In Waldenström macroglobulinemia, the monoclonal paraprotein is of which immunoglobulin class?
• Based on the postpartum and cord blood results, which donor phenotype is indicated for an exchange transfusion?
• Which step in PCR is most critical for determining reaction specificity?
• What is the role of potassium permanganate in the auramine-rhodamine acid-fast staining protocol?
• Based on the results Anti-A: 4+, Anti-B: 4+, Anti-D: 4+, A1 cells: 0, B cells: 0, what is the next step in ABO/Rh typing?
• In which disease state would you see an elevation in total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin only?
• In the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion susceptibility test, which variable is critical when testing Pseudomonas spp. against aminoglycosides?
• Which statement about the P blood group antigen is true?
• A patient with a sore throat develops a kidney biopsy two weeks later. Which organism would be isolated?
• In a disk diffusion experiment with multiple antibiotic discs, what observation would you expect when discs are placed appropriately on the plate?
• Leukemoid reaction can be observed in association with polycythemia vera and has what LAP score?
• Which statement NOT typically associated with burr cells on a blood smear?
• Immunophenotyping in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria typically shows absence of which surface markers?
• Elevated fetal fibronectin in cervicovaginal secretions is associated with what risk?
• Azotemia is defined as an increase in which laboratory parameter?
• In Rh typing using a high protein anti-D reagent, which interpretation is correct when AHG reaction is positive with patient cells but check cells are not performed?
• In megaloblastic anemia, impairment in synthesis of which macromolecule?
• A patient with walking pneumonia not responding to penicillin. This is due to
• Preferred method for diagnosis of CMV infection
• Which pattern represents an acquired B phenomenon in ABO blood grouping: Anti-A 4+, Anti-B 2+, A cells 0, B cells 4+?
• Supplementation with hemin and vitamin K enhances the recovery of which type of organism in culture?
• CA19-9 is a tumor marker most commonly elevated in which condition?
• Long, thin gram-negative rods tapered at the ends are most characteristic of which genus?
• Which ANA pattern is associated with anti-centromere antibodies?
• Which laboratory finding is most specific for intravascular hemolysis?
• The Nugent scoring system for Gram-stained vaginal smears is used to diagnose which infection?
• Four cryoprecipitate units have AHF and fibrinogen values; which action is appropriate?
• Which EBV serologic marker appears at the onset of symptoms and remains detectable for life?
• Which cryoprecipitate unit has the highest fibrinogen content?
• Which of the following is an anti-asthmatic drug?
• An undiluted CSF sample is loaded on a Neubauer hemocytometer. Side 1 yields 100 WBCs and Side 2 yields 55 WBCs. What should the MLS do?
• A patient presents with high cold agglutinin titer and automated hematology results showing elevated MCV, MCH, and MCHC with decreased RBC; agglutinates are noted. What is the recommended corrective step?
• In direct antiglobulin testing, if anti-IgG is negative and anti-C3d is positive, which technique is recommended?
• Which statement about the participation of platelets in the coagulation cascade is true?
• In cord blood, elution revealed antibodies against which red cell antigens?
• Confirmatory test for Lyme disease?
• A dematiaceous mold grew in 4 days on Sabouraud agar, isolated from a foot wound. The organism is most likely identified by chaining macroconidia with longitudinal and horizontal septations. Which genus does this description most support?
• Which of the following can cause hyponatremia?
• Platelet satellitosis is usually due to which of the following?
• Based on the serology results (anti-A 0, anti-B 2+ mf, plasma A1 cells 4+, plasma B cells 0), what is the interpretation?
• Which LAP score is typical for chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?
• Immunofluorescence staining using Crithidia luciliae substrate detects which autoantibody?
• Which condition is most likely to present with a greatly elevated WBC count due to a reactive process rather than leukemia?
• A refrigerated urine specimen shows specific gravity 1.020 and glucose 1000 mg. What correction is required?
• In serologic testing, the postzone effect remedy is:
• Which method provides the most rapid detection of Legionella pneumophila?
• Which trigger is listed as a cause of leukemoid reaction?
• RBC casts in urine are most strongly associated with which renal condition?
• A CSF sample intended for VDRL testing yields a negative RPR result because the VDRL reagent is temporarily unavailable. What is the appropriate next step?
• Which organism is a non-tuberculous mycobacterium?
• A blood supplier ships 3 units of pooled cryoprecipitate. Each pool consists of 5 units of cryoprecipitate. If one unit is thawed at 5:00 pm, when must it be dispense from the blood bank?
• Which organism is the second most common cause of respiratory infection among cystic fibrosis patients?
• Which of the following is NOT a step in platelet component production?
• What is the most rapid method for detection of Francisella tularensis?
• Anti-dsDNA antibodies are most commonly associated with which disease?
• Which statement about the Donath-Landsteiner antibody is not a description of its classic properties?
• In MALDI-TOF identification of Gram-negative bacteria, which biomolecule is used for detection?
• Presumptive tests used for identification of Pseudomonas species and to differentiate them from Enterobacteriaceae family
• Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle?
• A synovial fluid specimen is too viscous and difficult to aspirate. What must be done?
• In amperometry, which measurement is determined using this principle?
• In Diamond-blackfan anemia, what is the typical reticulocyte count?
• How many primers are used in standard PCR?
• Which ANA pattern is most commonly associated with SLE and anti-dsDNA antibodies?
• The enzyme assay using p-nitrophenylphosphate at pH 9.5 is most elevated in which condition?
• Pilocarpine iontophoresis refers to which process?
• Which organism typically demonstrates yellow to orange pigmentation of colonies when grown in the dark?
• A transferrin saturation of about 40% most likely indicates which iron status?
• Which autoimmune disorder is characterized by antibody-mediated damage to acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, causing progressive muscle weakness?
• Which EBV marker is most commonly used to indicate an acute EBV infection?
• Which morphological feature described is associated with Alternaria growth on Sabouraud agar?
• Which of the following statements accurately contrasts LAP in CML and leukemoid reaction?
• Leukemoid reaction is best described as:
• Which of the following statements about erythropoietin in polycythemia vera is true?
• Which of the following is most helpful to confirm a weak ABO subgroup?
• CSF for culture arrived late in the laboratory and Gram staining was the only test performed during the shift. What should the technologist do with the specimen?
• A gram negative bacillus with bipolar staining isolated from a wound infection caused by a bite from a pet cat. The following characteristic reactions were seen: oxidase +; OF test (O+/F+); nonmotile; no growth on MAC
• Bite cells are commonly associated with which deficiency?
• To prepare the reagent used for mucin clot determination of synovial fluid, water is mixed with which acid?
• Valinomycin enhances the selectivity of an electrode used to quantitate which ion?
• RBCs with blunt or pointed projections evenly spaced over the cell surface are called what, seen in uremia and pyruvate kinase deficiency?
• Semen analysis is typically performed after which process?
• Which statement about plasma cell markers is true?
• From a low-volume collection, which statement correctly describes the component labeling?
• Only 2 ml of blood is collected in a vacuum tube designed for 7 ml. Which result is most likely?
• Amniotic fluid is evaluated using a Liley graph and change in absorbance of 450 nm. What is being evaluated and why?
• Which marker is most characteristic for identifying plasma cells in flow cytometry?
• A markedly alkaline urine pH may be caused by which artifact?
• Rare congenital anemia presenting in infancy with severe anemia and erythropoietin resistance, where reticulocyte count fails to rise and platelet/WBC counts are normal.
• The latex agglutination test for Staphylococcus aureus detects which of the following?
• Which statement describes the speckled ANA pattern more specifically?
• Which hospital department should the microbiology laboratory collaborate with to collect data on ICU patients with a positive, drug-resistant organism?
• Which surface marker is NOT typically expressed on plasma cells?
• Which antibiotics should not be tested or reported for Enterococcus species in routine susceptibility testing?
• Walking pneumonia is caused by which organism?
• Which antibiotic must not be given if the organism causing pneumonia yields a positive Modified Hodge test?
• In patients taking oral contraceptives, iron and TIBC levels are typically:
• In a WBC counting problem, a decrease in counts when using a different diluent is best explained by which mechanism?
• What is the purpose of potassium permanganate when staining acid-fast bacilli with Truant auramine-rhodamine stain?